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National Unity Day: Patel, Integration and India’s Union — MCQs with Answers

Test what you know about National Unity Day: Patel, Integration and India’s Union with 10 UPSC Prelims-style questions. Try each one first, then tap “Show answer” for the correct option and its explanation.

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  1. Q1. With reference to the transition in 1947, consider the following statements: 1. The lapse of British paramountcy automatically merged princely states into India. 2. Initial accession generally covered defence, external affairs and communications. 3. Accession on specified subjects and complete administrative integration were distinct processes. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (B) 2 and 3 only

    Explanation

    Correct Answer: (B). The lapse of paramountcy ended the earlier imperial relationship; it did not automatically accomplish accession to India. Statements 2 and 3 are correct because the initial specified-subject framework left further governance arrangements to be settled. Treating accession as a complete administrative merger erases that important distinction in the integration process.

  2. Q2. A hypothetical transitional agreement preserves postal and transport services between a princely state and neighbouring territories without specifying transfer of governing powers. Which inference is most defensible?

    1. The state’s final boundaries have been constitutionally settled
    2. The ruler has transferred all internal administrative powers
    3. The agreement itself completes accession on all subjects
    4. It provides service continuity; full political merger cannot be inferred
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (D) It provides service continuity; full political merger cannot be inferred

    Explanation

    Correct Answer: (D). The stated function is continuity of services, characteristic of a standstill arrangement. Neither final boundaries nor a comprehensive transfer of authority follows from that function. The other choices insert political or constitutional consequences absent from the hypothetical agreement, confusing administrative continuity with accession or full integration.

  3. Q3. Consider the following pairs: 1. Junagadh — Plebiscite favouring India in February 1948 2. Hyderabad — Integration following Operation Polo in September 1948 3. Rajasthan — Present administrative configuration completed by one accession signature in 1947 How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

    1. Only two
    2. Only one
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (A) Only two

    Explanation

    Correct Answer: (A). Junagadh and Hyderabad match the stated events, so two pairs are correct. Rajasthan’s integration occurred through successive unions and later adjustments, not one accession signature. The incorrect pair tests the distinction between joining India and constructing the subsequent administrative unit, rather than merely asking for a date.

  4. Q4. A proposal to divide an existing state has been referred to its legislature under Article 3. The prescribed period has expired and the legislature has expressed opposition. Assuming the other constitutional requirements are met, which statement is correct?

    1. The proposal requires a favourable state resolution before Parliament can act
    2. The President may create the state without a parliamentary law
    3. Parliament may proceed because the state’s views are not binding consent
    4. The proposal must first secure ratification by half the states
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (C) Parliament may proceed because the state’s views are not binding consent

    Explanation

    Correct Answer: (C). Article 3 provides an opportunity for the affected state legislature to express views, not a veto over Parliament. Opposition therefore does not by itself prevent legislation after the required procedure. The power is exercised by parliamentary law; neither unilateral presidential creation nor general state ratification replaces that process.

  5. Q5. With reference to an Article 3 bill affecting a state’s name, consider the following statements: 1. The President’s recommendation is required before introduction in Parliament. 2. Seeking the affected state legislature’s views is optional because those views are not binding. 3. The bill may be introduced in either House of Parliament. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 3 only
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (A) 1 and 3 only

    Explanation

    Correct Answer: (A). Presidential recommendation and introduction in either House are consistent with Article 3. The affected state must receive the stipulated opportunity to express views where its name is affected. The views being non-binding does not remove the consultation requirement; statement 2 wrongly converts absence of a veto into optional procedure.

  6. Q6. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Necessary changes to the First and Fourth Schedules can accompany a law under Articles 2 and 3 without that law being treated as an Article 368 amendment. Statement-II: Article 4 expressly provides for such consequential changes and excludes such laws from Article 368 for this purpose. Which one of the following is correct?

    1. Both are correct, but II does not explain I
    2. Both are correct, and II explains I
    3. I is correct, but II is incorrect
    4. I is incorrect, but II is correct
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (B) Both are correct, and II explains I

    Explanation

    Correct Answer: (B). Article 4 supplies the specific constitutional mechanism described in statement I, so statement II explains it. Necessary schedule adjustments and related consequential provisions are permitted within that framework. This is a defined exception for the relevant laws, not a general exemption allowing unrelated constitutional amendments to avoid Article 368.

  7. Q7. Consider the following proposal–provision pairs: 1. Admission of a new state into the Union — Article 2 2. Alteration of an existing state’s boundary — Article 3 3. Unrelated rewriting of constitutional rights through a reorganisation law — Article 4 Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

    1. 1 and 3 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1, 2 and 3
    4. 1 and 2 only
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (D) 1 and 2 only

    Explanation

    Correct Answer: (D). Articles 2 and 3 cover the first two proposals. Article 4 concerns necessary schedule changes and supplemental, incidental and consequential provisions attached to the relevant laws. An unrelated rewriting of constitutional rights does not become permissible merely by placing it inside a state-reorganisation law, making pair 3 incorrect.

  8. Q8. A section of Indian citizens seeks to conserve its distinct script without demanding a separate state or secession. Which constitutional interpretation is most appropriate?

    1. Article 29(1) can protect the claim; cultural conservation does not itself imply secession
    2. Article 29(1) applies only if the claimants form a religious minority
    3. Such conservation requires a new state under Article 3 before it can be protected
    4. The duty to protect unity necessarily excludes a distinct script
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (A) Article 29(1) can protect the claim; cultural conservation does not itself imply secession

    Explanation

    Correct Answer: (A). Article 29(1) refers to a section of citizens with a distinct language, script or culture, not solely to religious minorities. Its protection does not depend on obtaining a separate state. Conservation within the constitutional framework can coexist with the duty to uphold unity, so the other options add unsupported restrictions.

  9. Q9. Consider the following statements about post-independence consolidation: 1. The States Reorganisation Act, 1956 belongs to a later phase than the initial accession arrangements of 1947. 2. A demand to alter internal state boundaries is conceptually identical to a claim to secede from India. 3. A new territorial arrangement requires administrative decisions beyond drawing boundaries. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (C) 1 and 3 only

    Explanation

    Correct Answer: (C). The 1956 reorganisation followed the initial accession phase, and implementation requires arrangements for institutions, staff, assets and services. Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Internal reorganisation operates within the Union; it does not carry the same meaning as departure from India, so statement 2 confuses distinct claims.

  10. Q10. An account describes Patel as the central political leader of integration, Menon as a key negotiator, and Junagadh and Hyderabad as following different routes. Which conclusion is best supported?

    1. Negotiated accession and administrative work were unnecessary once political leadership existed
    2. Political leadership worked with administrative expertise, using responses suited to different circumstances
    3. The exceptional use of military action establishes it as the standard route for all states
    4. Differences in integration routes mean the territories could not join a common Union
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (B) Political leadership worked with administrative expertise, using responses suited to different circumstances

    Explanation

    Correct Answer: (B). The account supports a combined role for leadership, negotiation and administrative expertise, with methods varying by context. It does not make supporting work dispensable or turn an exceptional route into a universal rule. Different paths can lead to a shared constitutional framework, so diversity of methods does not preclude integration.

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